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Originally Posted by Calgaryborn
We know the authors wrote the New Testament in the first century. We know they were eye witnesses and what they witnessed and heard primarily was in the public eye.
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The NT authors weren't eye witnesses. Paul wasn't an eye witness (and deliberately distances himself from the disciples), and the gospel accounts are written anonymously in a language and style obviously not of anyone around Jesus's time and location.
And while the general consensus is that most if not all the books in what eventually became the NT were written in the first century, they were also written decades to more than a generation after Jesus' life. And the original manuscripts no longer exist so we can never be sure what exactly was written in them, since the manuscript tradition we do have (5700+ manuscripts in Greek) contain more differences than words in the NT itself.
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Originally Posted by Calgaryborn
To deny the events happened is unreasonable given the crowds who witnessed them.
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To think that such events happened without anyone recording them is what is unreasonable. The first accounts of those events being written 40 years later?
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Originally Posted by Calgaryborn
If the Authors weren't telling the truth others would have called them on it. Obviously the Jews weren't very happy with this new upstart religion and would of exposed the lies.
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Others did call them on it, there was plenty of writing at the time which gave different accounts of Jesus' life and formed the foundation for some Christian groups.
As for non Christian writings, well the lack of non-Christian writings about Jesus and the events of his life is what one would expect if the events didn't actually take place or if the events were embellished and changed when they were finally put to paper a generation later (as one would expect of an oral history).
Quote:
Originally Posted by Calgaryborn
As an example just think of the miracles surrounding Jesus' death. It was reported that darkness covered the earth for 3 hours; There was an earth quake powerful enough to rend Rocks in two;
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That's pretty crazy to happen, yet no one thought to write it down until 40 years later?
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Originally Posted by Calgaryborn
The thick curtain that separated the mercy seat in the temple from the rest of the temple was torn from top to bottom.
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This one is interesting, again no account of this anywhere else except in the gospels. And even Mark and Luke disagree as to when it happened, according to Mark it happens after Jesus dies (Mark 15:38) while according to Luke it happens while Jesus is still alive (Luke 23:45-46).
This would appear to be a discrepancy and makes no sense if one's goal is to try to patch together an exact history from the different gospel accounts (thereby creating a new gospel account that no one wrote).
However consider that Luke used Mark as a source, so when Luke changes details from Mark the question is why. With the temple veil ripping (which is likely symbolic since there's no other record of that happening as a historical event) Mark sees Jesus' death as an end to Temple sacrifices. Jesus' death is an atonement for sin, god is available to all people because he is no longer separated from them by a thick curtain.
Luke on the other hand has the curtain rip before Jesus dies, so for Luke it's not about atonement. Rather for Luke it's the hour of darkness referred to earlier (Luke 22:53) and shows the judgment of god against the Jewish people; by ripping the curtain Luke indicates god is rejecting the Jewish system of worship.
Mark and Luke wanted to make different theological points.. Luke changed the details from Mark to make his point. So from that point of view the discrepancy doesn't matter and in fact makes sense.
If instead one tries to reconcile the discrepancy with some kind of verbal gymnastics not only does one come up with a an account that was never actually written down, it also robs the original authors of their theological points.
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Originally Posted by Calgaryborn
None of these events could have been staged by either Jesus or his followers. It makes no sense to have fabricated these events because the whole city who would of called them on it.
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Why would they have called them on it? The gospel accounts weren't written as historical treatises, they're gospels.
And the gospel authors were writing from the accounts they had been told, 40 years is a long time for an account to grow and change, why would someone call them out for writing down an account which is commonly spoken of?
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Originally Posted by Calgaryborn
They did happen and along with the other recorded events of Jesus' life make up the most remarkable 3 1/2 years of history.
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3 1/2 years comes from John, which refers to three separate Passover celebrations. But if you go by Mark, the earliest gospel, in Chapter 2 the disciples are in the wheat fields eating the grain (which the Pharisees don't like since harvesting violates the Sabbath), so that takes place in the fall (harvest time). After that the account of Jesus' ministry is a constant string of the Greek word euthus which means "immediately". Jesus did something then immediately did something else then immediately went somewhere, all the way up to Chapter 11 which is the last week of Jesus' life and during the Passover feast in Jerusalem. Which is in the spring, which seems to say Jesus' ministry was only a few months, from harvest to spring time. Unless Mark didn't actually mean all the "immediately"ies he wrote.
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Originally Posted by Calgaryborn
And we havent even touched on the fulfilled prophecies
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If one is writing the account, one can easily fulfill prophecies.
A good example of this is Jesus coming to Jerusalem. One can ask "How many animals did Jesus ride when entering Jerusalem". Mark 11:7 says one. Matthew though has it different.
Matthew in general goes to extremes to point out things that were fulfillment of prophecy, sometimes with strange results. In Matthew 21:5 he quotes Zechariah 9:9:
"See, your king comes to you,
gentle and riding on a donkey,
on a colt, the foal of a donkey."
The last two lines are a poetic prophecy called a synonymous parallelism, the last line restates what the second line says, something known to Hebrew Bible scholars.
Matthew apparently didn't know about this poetic style. But prophecy still needs to be fulfilled so Matthew has the disciples get two animals, put their garments over both, and Jesus rides into Jerusalem straddling two animals (Matthew 21:7).
When one is writing the account and is reading the prophecy it's easy to ensure the account fits prophecy. Or to misinterpret prophecies, or fulfill them if you know of them, or have prophecies generic enough they're easy to fulfill, etc.
I've never seen a prophecy about Jesus that is clearly such.
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Originally Posted by Calgaryborn
or the evidence of his resurrection.
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What evidence? The only contemporary accounts are those in the NT.
I know you won't agree with pretty much anything I posted, and I don't expect you to, I just wanted to put forward what centuries of biblical scholarship has found. Everything I've mentioned is standard material for prospective pastors attending seminary.