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Old 04-17-2012, 03:20 PM   #2465
Knalus
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Makarov View Post
Sorry, I'm not familiar with Christianity. I thought that the Old Testament was still an important book. I think my first question is still valid though. Is Leech saying that all sin is morally equivalent? (I'm not trying to score points; I'm sincerely curious.)
That is abundantly clear.

Leech is not saying that all sin is morally equivalent. Leech is explaining the definition of sin as equivalent to "wrong". Just like it is "wrong" to lie and gossip about a person, and it is "wrong" to swear at your grandma, and it is "wrong" to murder. If anyone said this, no one would question it. But because there are people like you who no longer are familiar with Christianity, they equate "sin" with "crime" - and this is not what it means. It is a logical fallacy.

In short: All crimes are sins. Not all sins are crimes. All men are sinful, but not all men are criminal.

Last edited by Knalus; 04-17-2012 at 03:21 PM. Reason: Trying to avoid being mean
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