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Originally Posted by Flames Draft Watcher
The difference in that parallel being that the timeframes are large. Israel was only established in 1948.
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So it is all in the timing?
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And by 1940 only 30% of the people in that region were Jewish.
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Yes, because thet were displaced (forcably in some cases) by Assyrians, Babylonians and Romans.
Weren't Natives a majority in the 1800's?
Ottoman Empire docs show that a good percentage for the "Native" Arab population emigrated to what is now Israel in the '40's also.
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They've displaced (forcibly in some cases) many Arabs (711,000 palestinians according the UN's numbers) since then and that is a major cause for any of these conflicts.
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The question here would be are hezbollah Palestinians? I guess the argument could be made that hezbollah count their solidarity with the Palestinians as a reason for the initial incursion (notwithsatnding any so called covert, wet, black-ops incursions by any other party)
And once again - Many Arabs left Israel through their own accord or per instructions form Egyptian generals who though they would win a war, or by force. Numbers vary on your point of view.
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Israel attacked Egypt in the 50's.
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in conjunction with the UK and France in response to Egypt's blockade of the Suez Canal in 1956.
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In the 60's Israel fought with several of it's Arab neighbors and conquered the West Bank, Gaza Strip, Sinai Peninsula, and Golan Heights.
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Israel fired the first shot in that one - in response to Syria, Jordan and Egypt's military buildup along Israels boarders.
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More skirmishes occured between Israel and Syria and Egypt over the next few years. In the 70's Egypt and Syria attacked Israel trying to regain some of the conquered territories.
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On the Holiest of Jewing Holy Days - Yom Kippur.
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WHITE DOORS: In 1982 Isreal attacked Lebanan and eventually captured Beirut. One might see this as the original cause of their particular conflict despite the fact that Israel did withdraw for a time.
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In response to gurilla gunfire coming from across the Lebanon boarder aimed at farmers along that boarder.
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Anyways, the roots of this conflict are clearly more recent than your Native example. As such I think the Arabs who have had territory taken away or have suffered an invasion at some point (1982 for Lebanon) have a greater "right" to defend themselves and retaliate than the Indians whose land was stolen from there over a century ago.
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So then, if Israel is succesful in implimenting the unilateral withdrawl and basically drawing their own boarders and can hold on to them for over 100 years, then the Palestinians, Arabs and hezbollah at that time will have less of or no right to "defend' themselves?
If hezbollah has the right to redraw the boarders at their whim, whether by peaceful of violent means, then so do the Natives. I don't see how time diminishes a "right"?