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Old 07-27-2016, 12:20 PM   #1
RoadGame
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My google-fu is failing me and I was hoping this is an easy answer for one of you accounting types on a lunch break:

If charge a customer $100 for something and have to pay the government GST ($5), do I pay corporate tax on my $100 revenue or $95 revenue, net of sales tax?

Thanks.
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Old 07-27-2016, 12:27 PM   #2
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If you charge the customer $100 for something, they're supposed to pay you $105, of which $100 is revenue and $5 is in trust for the government...
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Old 07-27-2016, 12:28 PM   #3
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Neither.

You charge $100 and add on $5 GST. The customer pays your $105, and you send that extra $5 off to the government. Then you are taxed on that $100.
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Old 07-27-2016, 12:39 PM   #4
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If your sales price is $100 before 5% GST, you charge $105 to the customer. You remit $5 GST to the government and report $100 of revenue.

If the total charge is $100 and you have to remit GST, then you remit $4.76 to the government and report $95.24 of revenue.
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Old 07-27-2016, 12:54 PM   #5
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Wow - lots of wrong answers in this thread...

The correct answer is that you must remit 45.5% of your revenue - whatever the highest number is that you can support - directly to me, in cash.

Contact info available via PM. Do not delay - penalties and interest are already accruing!
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Old 07-27-2016, 12:56 PM   #6
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Oldie but a goodie.

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Old 07-27-2016, 01:40 PM   #7
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Quote:
Originally Posted by BigNumbers View Post
Wow - lots of wrong answers in this thread...

The correct answer is that you must remit 45.5% of your revenue - whatever the highest number is that you can support - directly to me, in cash.

Contact info available via PM. Do not delay - penalties and interest are already accruing!
I'll accept iTunes gift cards!
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Old 07-27-2016, 01:45 PM   #8
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All the answers are wrong, btw. You remit net GST, that is the difference between the GST you collected and the GST you spent.
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Old 07-27-2016, 01:52 PM   #9
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All the answers are wrong, btw. You remit net GST, that is the difference between the GST you collected and the GST you spent.
This is wrong... that's not how ITC's work.

WE'RE ALL WRONG ABOUT EVERYTHING YOU GUYS
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Old 07-27-2016, 01:53 PM   #10
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####ing Accountants!!!
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Old 07-27-2016, 01:54 PM   #11
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Quote:
Originally Posted by CorsiHockeyLeague View Post
This is wrong... that's not how ITC's work.

WE'RE ALL WRONG ABOUT EVERYTHING YOU GUYS
Yes, yes, it's a bit more complicated. But fer crying out loud don't just simply send in what GST you get in as you'll never get back any money owed.
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Old 07-27-2016, 01:57 PM   #12
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Huh? If you over-remit GST you can get back the excess. Or you can just apply the ITCs on a going forward basis. I'm not a business accountant but that's more of a cashflow problem than anything else. Anyway, just by bringing ITCs into it you've made a really simple question needlessly complicated.
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Old 07-27-2016, 02:04 PM   #13
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Getting back money for overpaying is nigh-impossible these days. At best they'll credit you for the next cycle.

I over-paid my payroll, the only thing they would do for me was put the overage to next year's payroll.

Yeah you're not a business accountant. This is a somewhat common problem, this is why your accountant is supposed to tell you to be very careful when making payments. Also if you pay the wrong account, tough ####.
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Old 07-27-2016, 02:13 PM   #14
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I'm fairly certain that the ETA has a provision that allows you to apply for a return of tax paid in error, though. Granted, it's probably a bureaucratic nightmare and so it's good advice just to not screw up in the first place but I'm pretty sure you can get the $ back if you use the right procedure.

EDIT: Box 1C.

http://www.cra-arc.gc.ca/E/pbg/gf/gst189/gst189-14e.pdf
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Last edited by CorsiHockeyLeague; 07-27-2016 at 02:16 PM.
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Old 07-27-2016, 02:17 PM   #15
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Well that's nice, yes in fact there are forms you can fill for certain very specific error situations and perhaps they may give you a credit after a very long time.

The CRA will never, ever cut you a cheque for remittance errors that were your fault.
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