[ooogabooga]

Question for you all:

I put in my resignation notice on June 1st effective of June 18th. I get 2 weeks of vacation annually with an additional 5 flex days. To date, I have used 7 of the 10 vacation days. (For knee surgery, my employer wouldn't let me take any other time off otherwise) I get paid semi-monthly. On my current pay, I was deducted what seems to be more than 2 vacation days worth because I would have technically accrued approximately 5 days of vacation this year. First, can they do that on your second last paycheque? And second, I have asked my employer about the flex days I'm supposed to have, and am told due to accounting processes the vacation days have to be allocated first, and flex days after the vacation days have been used up. Obviously I'm not using my full allotment of vacation days this year, and now have been deducted 2.5 days worth of pay to recoup my pre-used vacation.

Are you actually allowed to do this as an employer? I haven't seen anything that shows that they can't and haven't seen anything regarding flex days being used after vacation days.
Am I just kind of screwed out of those 2.5 days of pay? I'm leaning towards yes..

Edit: Spoke to employment standards, yes with the changes made to employment standards act employers are allowed to deduct vacation if you leave if you have used more than you have accrued. There is no legislation or guidance regarding flex days they are at employers discretion.