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Old 06-17-2025, 10:53 AM   #10878
Fuzz
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Pointman View Post
The "in part" part was introduced because Hitler was looking to eliminate all European Jews, rather than all Jews in the world. When taken literally, it could make killing one person a genocide, because one person is a part of a nation, ethnicity and religion. Or killing soldiers of an enemy army is genocide because all members of an army belong to the same nation and, usually, race and ethnicity.

This way, every war is a two-way genocide. For example, Russian-Ukraine war is genocide because Ukrainians are killing Russians, intending to destroy a part of a national group that are Russians, and Russians are genocding Ukrainians. Also Russians, unlike Israel, actually did a formal land grab.

So, applying definition in such a loose way may help you frame Israel's actions as genocide, but conversely bereft this word of its original horrible meaning.
Ah, there it is. Only Jews can be genocided.


Also, it's not my definition, it's the UN, and others. In fact, why don't you do this. Why don't YOU go find a definition of genocide that wouldn't apply to what is happening. See if you can find 3.
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