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Originally Posted by bizaro86
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That wasn't what I was looking for but I think it's a great solution. Simple and immediately obvious. As you say, you do have to prove that the one term is irrational - and if we are being pedantic, you should have to prove that both terms are irrational. One isn't too hard, but the other is a bit more difficult.
Funny that I first heard this problem in my first year algebra course over 30 years ago, and I've seen it pop up every now and then, but never saw your solution.
Let me amend the problem a little. Prove that there exists two irrational, non-transcendental numbers (so no pi or e, for example) a and b such that a^b is rational.