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Old 12-24-2019, 08:41 AM   #44
OMG!WTF!
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Quote:
Originally Posted by blankall View Post
Yes it can. Bylaws are used to show what the reasonable standard is in a negligence case. Also I edited my post and the Occupiers Liability Act applies. Statute overrules common law.

That act is for the property you own or occupy. Not the public land around it. I think. But that's how it reads to me. The case you cited seems like they're talking about the sidewalk and or parking lot belonging to the business property.


Bylaws seem like a suggested norm but not a hard and fast legally binding object. For instance, the article I referenced showed that clearing the sidewalk actually made it more slippery.


Beat me to it so never mind.

Last edited by OMG!WTF!; 12-24-2019 at 08:43 AM.
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