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Old 07-17-2018, 05:53 PM   #12
bluck
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Join Date: Oct 2008
Location: Vancouver :(
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Aleks View Post
I've always thought it was funny this way. I have friends who are married, have kids, etc and they maintain separate accounts and pay rent and bills to each other. I on the other hand am common law and have had joint accounts ever since we built a house. Granted, our income is nearly identical, but I had more equity in my previous home than her. The lack of a need to "split things" or worry about if everything is even is the way it should be. No bickering over money, it all comes from the same place.
This could kind of tie into another question that I have. Let's say I decide to sell my condo (still soley in my name) and "we" decide to purchase a house. However lets say the funds from the house come from my condo. Would I also then be expected to put her name on the title for the new house even thought all the funds would be coming from the sale of my previous property which I would have been the sole owner?

Lets run under the scenario that the sale from my condo would then allow me to purchase a home in Calgary. (Currently live in Van and my condo is estimated at $500,000 here.) so we would not have a mortgage assuming I buy the home in Calgary out right for about 500K

Last edited by bluck; 07-17-2018 at 05:59 PM.
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