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Originally Posted by Bring_Back_Shantz
The precedent is that the law hasn't been applied in the way people are arguing it will be with other groups on the list, so why would it be in this case.
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Because its application in the case of transgender people is different from the way it applies in the case of other disadvantaged groups, as explained thoroughly in the post that I linked to on the last page, which you apparently neglected to read in your haste to reaffirm your pre-existing and only partially informed opinion.
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That's also the part of the problem here. I really think most people (yourself included, based on your response above) really have no idea with C16 is/does.
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I'm a litigation lawyer with who's read the legislation we're talking about. Given that, I'm confident I have a much better idea of what I'm talking about than many (including you) on this topic.