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Originally Posted by chemgear
Are insider trading investigations/convictions predicated upon an all or nothing transaction, is it proof of innocence if you sell 999,999 shares of something versus 1,000,000 during actual court cases with the ASC or OSC?
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Of course not, but I would think that you need to have some evidence that he received the information and when, and that needs to have predated the sale?
Quote:
Originally Posted by OMG!WTF!
I think because there is a time value to money, especially when dividends are involved. It pays to hang on to shares as long as you can (especially a low volatility stock like Morneau) without causing a disruption in the market.
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I agree, but these two sales straddle the ex-dividend date from what I can see. So if that was a factor and he had the information, you would have waited until the date passed and made the sale(s)?