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Old 11-14-2006, 01:53 AM   #283
photon
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Join Date: Oct 2001
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Calgaryborn View Post
The New Testament passage is clear. The reason you can find a link that questions its translation is because of political correctness invading weak churches. It would be convenient for some if it didn't say what it does. Homosexuality wasn't an issue when the first English translations came to be. They translated it without bias and all the same way. The notion that Paul was speaking of some pagan religious practice rather then the act is false. He mentions Idolatry before he mentions homosexuality but then goes on to mention many other sins. Read verses 28 through 32. He lists a whole range of sins including being disobedient to ones parents. Are all these sins tied into the same pagan religion? Can one conclude that disobedience to ones parents isn't a sin if it isn't done as part of a pagan ritual?

What you've stumbled upon is how great a lengths people will go to bend scriptures to their personal point of view.
I disagree, and there are many places where the translation from Greek is shown to be difficult and ambiguous. But I won't convince you. That's the fundamental problem with many religions; everyone thinks their interpretation is inspired and absolute and they are the ones that are correct (and 99% of the rest of people are wrong), no room for change. Never mind that each of these groups' interpretations conflict with the others. (i.e. what are the chances that out of 1000's of different groups the one you belong to just so happens to have hit on the exact right combination)

And what about the last part of that passage? Those sins are worthy of death according to Paul. Why isn't that part taken literally?
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