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Old 11-13-2006, 09:17 PM   #265
Dion
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Join Date: Mar 2006
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Calgaryborn View Post
It is an english word. Who are you to say I can't use it. Are you arguing that because a couple of translations I don't adhere to uses an english word that some scholar thinks is too broad for the passage that somehow my faith is in jeopardy? Read Romans Chapter one. What it describes is homosexuality. "Men giving up the natural use of a woman and being inflamed with lust for one another and the women likewise..." does God need to draw you a picture? How can that not be clear to you?
And likewise also the men, leaving the natural use of the
woman, burned in their lust one toward another; men with men
working that which is unseemly, and receiving in themselves that
recompence of their error which was meet.

Where is "and the women likewise"???

What is clear to me is that the Hebrew text mentions nothing about Lesbians. How else does one verify the accuracy of what is written without going back to the original text.

You can't use the word and then disregard parts of the term.
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