Quote:
Originally Posted by Calgaryborn
I think your being presumptuous. I use the King James version exclusively. Homosexuality wasn't even an issue when it was translated. It was actually more of an issue in the New Testament times. You have pointed out that that word(homosexualality) didn't even exist in the 16th century. You have not shown any evidence that this translation was altered because of a political agenda.
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That article I posted gave evidence. Go re-read it and check the LB and NLT translations. Those authors inserted their politcal bias by using the word.
You also know that homosexuality encompases lesbians also. So how can you use that term when the Hebrew text makes no mention of lesbian activity. For that matter why didn't God say a woman should not lie with a woman?
You can't use that word.