Quote:
Originally Posted by Calgaryborn
You do realize that the passage I quoted was from the New Testament and was written in Greek. If there is a controversy with regards to your Old Testament passage the New Testament definitely clarifies God's intent. Also the Hebrew language hasn't changed. It is suspect that the question comes at a time when there are external pressures for the church and synagogue to conform to the societal view.
That being said; obviously the Bible only holds authority to one segment of society. Even for many Christians traditions and/or their church leadership holds more authority
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If it's not in the Hebrew text how can you use the word homosexual?
And how are people supposed to trust the Bible as being reliable when politcaly correct authors add the word homosexual to support their biased view?
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The word "homosexual" was invented by the Austrian-Hungarian writer and "gay rights" advocate K.M. Kertbeny in 1869. He wanted this term to characterize a healthy condition of loving one's own sex. Immediately thereafter, however, the Berlin psychiatrist Carl Westphal named this condition "contrary sexual feeling" and declared it to be a disease. For the next hundred years the entire psychiatric profession - adopting Kertbeny's term, but Westphal's characterization - considered homosexuals to be suffering from mental illness and devised various "cures". Finally, in 1973, the American Psychiatric Association removed the diagnosis from its manual. From that moment on, millions of formerly sick homosexual women and men were healthy again - the greatest and fastest mass cure in medical history. (However, this did not win anyone a Nobel prize for medicine).