Quote:
Originally Posted by Dion
"The passage in the ancient Hebrew is clearly talking about male-male sex acts. By using the word "homosexuality," the English translation appears to condemn lesbian activity as well. The latter behavior is definitely not mentioned in the original Hebrew text of this passage. In fact, lesbian behavior is not mentioned anywhere in the Hebrew Scriptures.
The term "homosexuality" has two distinct meanings in English. Sometimes it refers to sexual behavior (what some people do). Sometimes it relates to sexual orientation (what some people are). One reader might conclude from an English translation that homosexual orientation is criticized in the Bible; others might assume that homosexual behavior is criticized.
The word "homosexual" was first used in the very late in 19th century CE. There was no Hebrew word that meant "homosexual." Thus, whenever the word is seen in an English translation of the Bible, one should be wary that the translators might be inserting their own prejudices into the text."
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You do realize that the passage I quoted was from the New Testament and was written in Greek. If there is a controversy with regards to your Old Testament passage the New Testament definitely clarifies God's intent. Also the Hebrew language hasn't changed. It is suspect that the question comes at a time when there are external pressures for the church and synagogue to conform to the societal view.
That being said; obviously the Bible only holds authority to one segment of society. Even for many Christians traditions and/or their church leadership holds more authority