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Old 11-13-2006, 07:42 PM   #217
Dion
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One more thing, Calgaryborn......

The term and word "homosexuality" are a 19th century
invention. Do the research.

What you are trying to do is take a 19th century term and try to claim
it was in the original text.

How can it be in the original text when it wasn't invented?

I gave examples of two versions that had the word "homosexuality" in
them. Both were 19th century translations that included a 19th centry
word. The authors of the two versions "changed" some words to
include "homosexuality".

To see if the term used is correctly one must go back to the original Hebrew text. The quote i provided in my other post shows this. There is
no mention of lesbian activity. So how can it be "homosexuality"?

The KJV doesn't have the word "homosexuality" in it because the word
and term had not been invented.
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