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Originally Posted by CaptainYooh
So, my primitive math wasn't really as off as CHL had suggested.
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I wasn't challenging your math, but your understanding of how tax liability works as between Canada and the UK. Locke just gave you taxable income calculated according to Canadian tax rules. He did not give you any information as to who would get what portion of that money, because he can't do that based on the information available. Maybe Edwards's income is Canadian source income. Surely a lot of it is earned through Canadian resident corporations, which still pay tax at the corporate level. Are his shares those of companies that own significant Canadian real property?
I'm just saying your initial comment is clearly wrong. Just because someone becomes resident in another jurisdiction does not mean they stop paying tax to the Receiver General. It doesn't even mean Canada ends up with a significantly smaller share, though of course it might.
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Say, he does receive most of his income as dividends, even then Alberta and Canada stand to lose tens of millions of revenue from his personal taxes; is that not a fair assumption?
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Nope. Not without a lot more information. But it's fair to assume that he would be doing this to reduce tax paid, and that some portion of his tax paid will be going to England instead of Canada.