So if he did go voluntarily off the meds, which were presumably keeping him of sound mind, couldn't the argument be made that he was in control of that choice, thus making him criminally responsible?
It would kind of be like me deciding when I'm sober that I won't drive drunk, but then I get wasted and drive drunk. My bad decision is the starting drinking, becuase that leads to poor choices. Obviously the drunk driver is held responsible.
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