Quote:
Originally Posted by KootenayFlamesFan
I don't think anyone is saying that. But if something is called the '2nd Amendment' you would think there is merit discussing actually amending something that was written hundreds of years ago. Times change.
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I have yet to have anyone coherently explain why this one amendment is wholly infallible yet there are a bevy of others (slavery, women voting, prohibition, etc) that were changed or added and yet the country didn't devolve into anarchy and ruin. What is it about private firearm ownership that is such an inalienable right whilst others can clearly be seen as antiquated?