Quote:
Originally Posted by Wormius
There wasn't really a point, per se. I was wondering aloud about the equivalency of the two scenarios and whether they would both be treated in the same way - that is, in both scenarios is the victim still the one that is inebriated and taken advantage of by somebody who was sober? More just questioning who in one scenario a drunk person is considered a victim, and in the other case is considered a criminal.
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It's almost as if nothing in life is black and white and context can change perception.