Neither did I. My sole point is that to determine a leader's "popularity" based on their ability/inability to win a plurality of the popular vote (50.1%) is hardly a robust analysis and overly simplifies something that is much more complex - ie. parliamentary politics. Winston Churchill never won more that 48% of any popular vote yet he was incredibly popular. So is it accurate to say that he was not popular with most of the public? Are there any other factors that might be influencing the final numbers? My understanding of such things tell me that there are.
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