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Originally Posted by blankall
No it's not "ridonk". Daly is taking a slavish interpretation of the CBA. He should apply that interpretation consistently and fairly.
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I think I am missing something here.
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Originally Posted by CBA
A "restricted free agent" is defined as a player who is subject to a Right of First Refusal and/or Draft Choice Compensation in favor of his prior club (Colorado Avalanche in this case)
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So when O'Reilly signs an offer sheet with the Calgary Flames, he remains a Restricted Free Agent.
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Originally Posted by CBA
10.3(c) If the Prior Club (Avalanche) does not give the RFA the First Refusal Exercise notice within 7 days, the Player and New Club shall be deemed to have entered into a binding agreement, which they shall promptly formalize in an SPC, containing all of the terms contained in the offer sheet, and the RFA's Prior Club shall receive from the New Club the Draft Choice Compensation, if any.
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So from that I gather that if the Avalanche did not match Calgary's offer within 7 days, O'Reilly is still an RFA because the Avalanche are still owed Draft Choice Compensation for him.
If the Draft Choice Compensation is paid before the SPC is signed, is he then no longer an RFA because his prior team is no longer owed Draft Choice Compensation? If so, is he not still subject to waivers since he is not on the Flames RFA list?
If the SPC is signed first, he's still an Avalanche RFA technically, so he'd be subject to waivers in this case as well since he is not Flames property nor is he on the Flames RFA list.
Also can you please clarify your statement that Columbus can't afford him under next year's cap? I'm having a hard time understanding what you mean.