Please re-read my post, rather than just one line of it. I'm not talking about during the term of the pregancy, but rather the period of time after birth.
If the father has no rights to decide what happens with the child, why is he forced to pay for it.
Once again, I am talking about a very limited scope here; where the girl made assurances of taking measures to prevent pregancy, but lied about taking such measures. As a general rule the scares that some of us may have had in our past do not apply, as that falls into my "slipping one past the goalie" theory. If the girl decides to pull the goalie all together, that's different.
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