Quote:
Originally Posted by Calgaryborn
What are you talking about? We have nearly 2000 years of consistant scholarship on the subject. That scholarship has come to the same conclusion regardless of which society has done the work.
Your women pastor neglected to insert scriptures into her article. Moreover, she neglected to consider many important passages on the subject of marriage: Eph 5:25-33 comes to mind.
The greek word "aner'" is translated "man" 156 times in my KJV and "husband" 50 times.
The greek word "gune'" is translated "man" 129 times in the KJV and "wife" 92 times.
There is no time where the New Testament uses a masculine word for wife or a feminine word for husband. Also, most greek nouns have an artcle attached to it that is either masculine, feminine, or neutral. It is a very specific language. I have never seen a masculine article attached to "gune'" or a feminine artcle attached to the word "aner'".
You and your Pastor can deny scriptures and pretend God agrees with you all you want. The fact remains biblical marriage is between a man and a women. Was polygamy practiced in biblical times? Sure, men did all kinds of things. In the New Testament that disqualified a man from church office.
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All that there kinda ignores the whole truth spoken by that "woman pastor" below:
"Written more than 2,000 years ago at a significant historical and cultural distance, the Bible gathers together a diverse collection of ancient books, edited over time, not a coherent, divinely inspired set of instructions that can easily be applied."
Hence
any interpretation of the said scriptures aren't the be all end all to the morality of life on Earth. Gay people just want the ability to be with the one they love and have that relationship be accepted by the broader community just like any straight couple. Why does something like that have to be denied because of Greek translations of ancient books?