View Single Post
Old 03-27-2011, 03:03 AM   #20
Phanuthier
Franchise Player
 
Phanuthier's Avatar
 
Join Date: Feb 2002
Location: Silicon Valley
Exp:
Default

Quote:
Originally Posted by Wise Gamble View Post
Lets say you had a perfect coin and you flipped it 1 million times. After 1 million flips it would likely be approximately 50% Heads and approximately 50% Tails and it would always stay within 1% of that no matter how many more times you flipped it. Now, if you were to glue together a Dime and a Penny and you flipped it 1 million times you would have an accurate answer as to how likely it is to land Penny side up versus Dime side up. My question is, what is the MINIMUM number of flips you could give it without the percentage ever changing again more than 3% either way?

I have no idea what the answer is by the way.
This is just a Bernoulli probability, isn't it?

P(k) = nCk * p^k * (1-p)^(n-k) = 3%

where p = probability of Penny side up, which you can't really determine without knowing how the penny/dime is weighted.

Solve for k

i think ???

(I just googled up, apparently a dime and penny both weigh 2.5g. But I guess you were asking for a weighted example.)
__________________
"With a coach and a player, sometimes there's just so much respect there that it's boils over"
-Taylor Hall

Last edited by Phanuthier; 03-27-2011 at 03:06 AM.
Phanuthier is offline   Reply With Quote