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Originally Posted by JohnnyB
This is a really good post. Makes me wonder, does anyone know of any good explanations for why we find the same chords so appealing. Is there some biological reason for this? Any kind of evolutionary antecedent?
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Yes there is actually...it's called the overtone system. Brief explanation here:
http://www.music.vt.edu/musicdiction.../overtone.html
Basically, it's sound waves and their frequencies. The A that most instruments tune to, has a frequency of 440Hz. The A above that (an octave higher) has a frequency of 880Hz. It's all mathematically connected. Which is why if you play a note with 440Hz together with one that is 880Hz at the same time, it sounds "good" but playing 440Hz with say, 875Hz, would sound dissonant and "bad."
For the layman, the further away from the fundamental you get, the more dissonant the sound gets. Chords that have notes in them close to the fundamental, are the most popular ones today. That's why you can take the 4 chords that most pop songs use, and play them in any order and they'll sound different, but will all sound "good."
This is why music exists in every culture, society, etc. It is as natural to us as breathing.
Read this article on how music has similar effects on our brains as drugs and sex. Literally.
http://www.canadiangeographic.ca/mag...6/alacarte.asp