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					Originally Posted by  Shazam
					 
				 
				Feudal Europe was feudal. 
 
What you understand as rule of law didn't exist back then. 
			
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Expand, please. 
The rule of just law is an idea in political regimes that goes all the way back to Plato. If you mean, civil law as discussed by Locke, then yes, you would be right.