Quote:
Originally Posted by octothorp
I have to question any argument that uses 30-year-old data as its primary source; surely studies have been done since then?
http://focus.hms.harvard.edu/2002/Ma...y_control.html
This study, for example, comes from 2002, is also from Harvard, and shows a direct correlation between gun ownership and total violent deaths. Now granted, it's looking specifically at incidents involving children (accidents, suicides, and murders). If the original argument and stats were to carry over, you'd expect that as gun prevalence decreased and gun-related violence decreased, non-gun-related violent crime would increase. But this is not the case; non-gun violence does not increase, which refutes the idea that someone will turn to other implements when they do not have access to firearms. |
I didn't read your link but if the study was just on children, then i could understand why the incedents of violence with other objects did not increase as most gun incidents involving children are accidental due to improper storage of firearms.
But you are right, the author of the original post should have used more recent data to support his arguement.